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When claiming about trinity Christians mostly claims of John 1:1 to prove their trinitarian concept.
In different versions of the bible John 1:1 read like this
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
In Hebrew it is written as
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
And the Actual Greek read like this:
En arche een ho logoskai ho logos een pros ton theon kai theos een ho logos
If you translate the verse or if you know Hebrew then the translation of this verse is:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
You can see the original word of Hebrew bible here. This is an official site for reading bible containing many different versions. Below is the link of John 1:1 in Hebrew
http://t8.biblos.com/john/1.htm
However, the actucal meaning of this verse has been incorrectly translated to prove trinity.
The actual translation of this verse is
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and God was the word.
Now you might need prove if you can't understand Hebrew
Below is the link to Google translator. Put the verse in it and it will translate it for you
http://translate.google.com/
You will get meanings very similar in other editions like
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. Or God was the Word
So this is the crucial matter and point, the fact that John separates the Word and God, and makes a clear distinction that the Word is not THE God, but just a god.
This is a more fair and truthful plus an accurate translation. The first translation that I gave you is a false and biased Trinitarian translation, a Trinitarian translation they have done to suit their false doctrine. This right here is enough to refute the argument and put it to bed, to show that John 1:1 does not call Jesus THE God.
However so it doesn't end there, the main issue that should make you think, and should make the Trinitarian think is WHY did the Gospel writer choose to remove the definite article? Why would the Gospel author distinguish between THE God and his servant Jesus? Why does he make this crucial distinction between THE God and the Word? By removing the definite article from Jesus what is the author trying to show you? Is he trying to show you the Word is God also? Why John differentiate between Word and God?
The answer is very simple, and this in itself is what makes this argument very strong against the Trinitarian. The fact that John removes the definite article from calling the Word God is an indication of his beliefs, that he did NOT believe the Word was THE God, as he made a clear distinction with God and the Word by taking the definite article out concerning the Word, and leaving it in for the true God.
The false Tritarian translation is :
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
But the actual translation is:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
So to summarize:
-John 1:1 shows Jesus is not THE GOD
-John 1:1 mentions THE True God, and then makes sure to distinguish this with Jesus
-John 1:1 falsely calls Jesus a god, taking the definite article out
-God's word is his purpose, plan, and wisdom
-God's word is always with him, as he doesn't get new ideas, he is all knowing
-Jesus is the word of God, Allah simply said BE and he was
-Adam is also the word of God, so are you, myself, and everything in creation
-Everything is created through and by God's word, he says be and it is
Quran 3:59
"The similitude of Jesus before Allah is as that of Adam; He created him from dust, then said to him: "Be". And he was. "
So in conclusion the reality is this, John 1:1 is the greatest proof that Jesus is not God, now who would have thought that?
And Allah Knows Best!
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